From: kovarik@mcmail.cis.McMaster.CA (Zdislav V. Kovarik) Newsgroups: sci.math.num-analysis,sci.math Subject: Re: continuous 1-1 function from RxR to R? Date: 10 Oct 1995 18:37:07 -0400 In article <45e623$7e7@muir.math.niu.edu>, Dave Rusin wrote: >In article <45doa2$432@gap.cco.caltech.edu>, >Ilias Kastanas wrote: >> Consider, then, B = R - Q (with the topology inherited from R -- no >> tricks). The irrationals... so reasonable! What have we lost? B is a >> complete metric space. > >What is the limit of the Cauchy sequence \pi, \pi/2, \pi/3, ..., \pi/n ? Precisely! Rigor fell victim to Ilias Kastanas's folksy enthusiasm. True, the irrationals, with the topology inherited from R, are metrizable and among the metrics there is one that makes B complete. (A general theorem in this direction is: A metrizable space is homeomorphic to a complete metric space iff it is a G-delta subset of a complete metric space, i.e. a countable intersection of open subsets.) But both previous authors probably knew this anyway; I just tried to demystify the issue. To get a complete metric explicitly, we arrange the rationals into a sequence {r_n}_n>0 , and define the distance between two irrationals as d(x,y) = |x - y| + sum {|1/(x-r_n) - 1/(y-r_n)|/2^n : n>0} so that the sequence {pi/n} fails to be Cauchy. (We "pushed the rationals to infinity".) What is this topic doing in sci.math.num-analysis? Cheers, ZVK (Slavek). ============================================================================== From: ikastan@alumni.caltech.edu (Ilias Kastanas) Newsgroups: sci.math.num-analysis,sci.math Subject: Re: continuous 1-1 function from RxR to R? Date: 16 Oct 1995 08:39:30 GMT In article <45e623$7e7@muir.math.niu.edu>, Dave Rusin wrote: >In article <45doa2$432@gap.cco.caltech.edu>, >Ilias Kastanas wrote: >> Consider, then, B = R - Q (with the topology inherited from R -- no >> tricks). The irrationals... so reasonable! What have we lost? B is a >> complete metric space. > >What is the limit of the Cauchy sequence \pi, \pi/2, \pi/3, ..., \pi/n ? It is possible that different metrics induce a given topology, some of them complete and some not. Simple example: (0,1) with the usual topology. The sequence {1/n} is Cauchy under the standard metric, and has no limit. But (0,1) is homeomor- phic to R, which is complete. Carry back that metric, and (0,1) becomes a complete metric space. B is complete if you pick the right metric. For example, B is homeo- morphic to J, the irrationals in (0,1). Using continued fraction expansi- ons, J is homeomorphic to the space of positive integer sequences, a com- plete metric space under d(x,y) = 1/(n + 1), n the least index such that x(n) != y(n). And d(x,x) = 0... I'll dot the i's and cross the t's this time! Using that metric on B, the desired topology is generated; and the sequence {pi/n} is not Cauchy. Maybe I should have written "completely metrizable" to begin with, instead of cutting corners. But then we wouldn't have had this bit of discussion! Ilias